Functional Reverse-Engineering

Define g : \mathbb R \to \mathbb R by g(x) = x^2 - x + 1 = (x-1/2)^2 + 3/4.

Problem 1. Suppose there exists a function f : \mathbb R \to \mathbb R such that f \circ f = g. Evaluate f(1) and f(0).

(Click for Solution)

Solution. We first observe that (f \circ f)(1) = g(1) = 1. Applying f on both sides,

\begin{aligned}f((f \circ f)(1)) &= f(1) \\ (f \circ f)(f(1)) &= f(1) \\ f(1)^2 - f(1) + 1 &= f(1) \\ (f(1)-1)^2 &= 0.\end{aligned}

Hence, f(1) = 1. Similarly, (f \circ f)(0) = g(0) = 1. Applying f on both sides yields

f(0)^2 - f(0) + 1 = 1 \quad \iff \quad f(0)(f(0) - 1) = 0.

Hence, f(0) = 0 or f(0) = 1. The former yields

0 = f(0) = f(f(0)) = g(0) = 1,

a blatant contradiction.

Problem 2. Define the sequence \{x_n\} by x_0 := 1/2, x_1 := 5/8, and x_{n+2} := g(x_n) for integers n \geq 0. Prove that x_n \to 1.

(Click for Solution)

Solution. We first make a few observations:

Thus, g|_K is bijective to its image for any K \subseteq [1/2, \infty). By construction, x_0 \leq x_1 \leq 3/4 = g(x_0) = x_2. Furthermore, for n \geq 0,

x_{n+2} = g(x_n) \leq g(x_{n+1}) = x_{n+3}.

Thus, by induction, \{x_n\} is an increasing sequence. Since \{x_n\} is bounded above by 1, by the monotone convergence theorem, x_n \to r for some r \in \mathbb R. By the continuity of g,

\displaystyle r = \lim_{n \to \infty} x_{n+2} = \lim_{n \to \infty}g(x_n) = g \left( \lim_{n \to \infty} x_n \right) = g(r).

But we have g(r) = r \iff r = 1, so that x_n \to 1, as required.

Problem 3. Construct a continuous function f: \mathbb R \to \mathbb R such that f \circ f = g.

(Click for Solution)

Solution. We follow the construction in this post by user pco. We will construct f on the following subsets of \mathbb R:

  • [1/2, 1),
  • \{1\},
  • (1, \infty),
  • (-\infty, 1/2).

For the interval [1/2, 1), define the sequence \{x_n\} according to Problem 2. Let p_{a, b} : [0, 1) \to [a, b) denote the canonical continuous bijection defined by

\displaystyle p_{a,b}(t) = a + t \cdot (b-a).

Then define the sequence \{h_n\} of bijections h_n : [x_n, x_{n+1}) \to [x_{n+1}, x_{n+2}) by

h_0 = p_{x_1, x_2} \circ p_{x_0,x_1}^{-1},\quad h_{n+1} = g|_{[x_n, x_{n+1})} \circ h_n^{-1}.

Thus, for x \in [1/2, 1), we define

f(x) = h_n(x) \quad \iff \quad x \in [x_n, x_{n+1}).

By construction,

\begin{aligned} (f \circ f)(x) &= f(f(x)) \\ &= f(h_n(x)) \\ &= h_{n+1}(h_n(x)) \\ &= (h_{n+1} \circ h_n)(x) = g(x).\end{aligned}

Thus, we have constructed f on [1/2, 1). Since we require f to satisfy

f(f(x)) = x^2 - x + 1,

Problem 1 stipulates that f(1) = 1. Furthermore, this definition allows f to be continuous by Problem 2. To define f on (1, \infty), we first define f on [2, \infty). Define the sequence \{y_n\} similarly to \{x_n\} as in Problem 2, except that we now have the initial conditions y_0 := 2 and y_1 := (2+g(2))/2 = 5/2.

Just like before, y_0 \leq y_1 \leq y_2 and since g is increasing, \{ y_n \} is an increasing sequence by the argument in Problem 2. For divergence to infinity, we recall that

y_{n+2} = y_n \cdot (y_n - 1) + 1 \geq y_n + 1.

If y_n converges to a limit, then 0 \geq 1, a blatant contradiction. Thus, \{y_n\} diverges. Since \{y_n\} is strictly increasing, it is unbounded. Thus, y_n \to \infty.

Defining \{ h_n \} similarly as in the [1/2, 1) case, we define

f(x) = h_n(x)\quad \iff \quad x \in [y_n, y_{n+1})

and deduce f \circ f = g on that domain too.

We next define f on (1, 2). Define the sequence \{z_n\} by z_0 := 5/2, z_1 := 2, and z_{n+2} := g|_{(1,5/2)}^{-1}(z_n). By a similar proof as in Problem 2, since z_2 \leq z_1 \leq z_0 and g_{(1,2)}^{-1} is decreasing, z_n decreases to 1.

Define the bijections l_n : [z_{n+2},z_{n+1}) \to [z_{n+1}, z_n) in a similar manner to Problem 2, but in the reverse direction:

l_0 = p_{z_1, z_0} \circ p_{z_2,z_1}^{-1}, \quad l_{n+1} = l_n^{-1} \circ g|_{[z_{n+3}, z_{n+2})}.

Finally, define

f(x) = l_n(x)\quad \iff \quad x \in [z_n, z_{n+1}).

By construction,

\begin{aligned} (f \circ f)(x) &=(l_n \circ l_{n+1})(x) = g(x).\end{aligned}

Finally, for the domain (-\infty, 1/2), define f(x) := f(1-x), since

\begin{aligned} (f \circ f)(x) &= f(f(x)) \\ &= f(f(1-x)) \\ &= (f \circ f)(1-x) \\ &= g(1-x) = g(x). \end{aligned}

—Joel Kindiak, 11 Jun 25, 0008H

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