In what follows, let
be a continuously differentiable function. Suppose there exists
such that for any
,
.
Problem 1. Prove that
.
(Click for Solution)
Solution. The key trick is to notice that
. Analysing both parts then combining their results should yield our desired outcome.
Fix
. Since
is differentiable, by the mean value theorem, there exists
such that

Integrating on both sides yields

Since
is constant,

At this point in time it is tempting to bring out
. However,
depends on
and therefore needs to remain in the integral. We will instead shift
to the left hand side apply
on all sides:

Applying the triangle inequality for integrals yields

where we used
in the second inequality, and
implies that
. Evaluating the integral (either through antiderivatives or the area under a triangle) yields

Consequently, combining the bounds, we obtain

A similar argument on
will yield

By the triangle inequality,

as required.
Problem 2. Evaluate
in terms of
.
(Click for Solution)
Solution. Integrating by parts,
![\begin{aligned} \int_0^1 yx^y f(x)\, \mathrm dx &= \left[ y \cdot \frac {x^{y+1}}{y+1} \cdot f(x) \right]_0^1 - \int_0^1 y \cdot \frac {x^{y+1}}{y+1} \cdot f'(x) \, \mathrm dx \\ &= \frac y{y+1} \cdot f(1) - \frac y{y+1} \cdot \int_0^1 x^{y+1}\cdot f'(x)\, \mathrm dx. \end{aligned}](https://s0.wp.com/latex.php?latex=%5Cbegin%7Baligned%7D+%5Cint_0%5E1+yx%5Ey+f%28x%29%5C%2C+%5Cmathrm+dx+%26%3D+%5Cleft%5B+y+%5Ccdot+%5Cfrac+%7Bx%5E%7By%2B1%7D%7D%7By%2B1%7D+%5Ccdot+f%28x%29+%5Cright%5D_0%5E1+-+%5Cint_0%5E1+y+%5Ccdot+%5Cfrac+%7Bx%5E%7By%2B1%7D%7D%7By%2B1%7D+%5Ccdot+f%27%28x%29+%5C%2C+%5Cmathrm+dx+%5C%5C+%26%3D+%5Cfrac+y%7By%2B1%7D+%5Ccdot+f%281%29+-+%5Cfrac+y%7By%2B1%7D+%5Ccdot+%5Cint_0%5E1+x%5E%7By%2B1%7D%5Ccdot+f%27%28x%29%5C%2C+%5Cmathrm+dx.+%5Cend%7Baligned%7D&bg=ffffff&fg=000&s=0&c=20201002)
Since
, by the triangle inequality,

Hence,

Since
as
, using limit laws,

—Joel Kindiak, 11 Aug 25, 1118H